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I hope it helps
Well, let's take a looksee, dear one (again, peace to you!). Note, some underlining/bolding, etc., is mine, just to clarify what I am commenting on:
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The "Shield of the Trinity" or "Scutum Fidei" diagram of traditional Western Christian symbolism.
So, it's "traditional" (and not scriptural) as well as not EASTERN (or Orthodox) Christian symbolism...?
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The Christian doctrine of the Trinity defines God as three divine persons or hypostases: the Father, the Son (Jesus Christ), and the Holy Spirit; "one God in three persons". The three persons are distinct, yet are one "substance, essence or nature". A nature is what one is, while a person is who one is.
Okay, so we know WHO the Father is (JAH, JAHVEH, YAHWEH, "Jehovah"...) and WHO the Son is (Y'Shua, YeShua, YeHoshua, JaheShua, "Jesus"...). WHO... is the Holy Spirit? What is his/its NAME? And before you say he has no name, consider that the very basis FOR the "trinity" teaching is the (misrendering) of
Matthew 28:19, which purports to tell the Body to go and baptize folks "in(to) the NAME of the Father, AND (the name) of the Son, AND (the name) of the Holy Spirit." So, what's the big secret? What is that Spirit's NAME?
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The Trinity is considered to be a mystery of Christian faith.
Oh, but wait. How can THAT be? There is no mystery with God... as He is REVEALED through Christ. The only mysteries were as to the Babylon the Great. And even THAT mystery was revealed in the Revelation. Even so, Christ said the spirit of the truth (and he is truth, yes, so HIS spirit)... would lead us into ALL truth. And John said that the anointing teaches us EVERYTHING. So WHAT "mystery" of the Christian "faith"?
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According to this doctrine, there is only one God in three persons. Each person is God, whole and entire. They are distinct from one another in their relations of origin: as the Fourth Lateran Council declared, "it is the Father who generates, the Son who is begotten, and the Holy Spirit who proceeds".
From where did they get this "understanding"? It's not written, so... what, holy spirit? And what/who was the Fourth Lateran Council? Let's see:
http://wikipedia.org/wiki/Fourth_Council_of_the_LateranOh, wait... it was convoked by Pope Innocent III... in 200... oh, no... 1215 AD!! More than 1,000 years after Christ?! And dare we read about Pope Innocent III?
http://wikipedia.org/wiki/Pope_Innocent_IIINow THERE'S a man with clean hands... and holy spirit! Not! But, heck, he called a council so...
This is most interesting though:
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"Innocent III was believed to be in purgatory on the very day he died. He is said to have appeared to St. Lutgarda in her monastery at Aywieres in Brabant. Engulfed in flames, he declared to her, “I am Pope Innocent”. He continued to explain that he was in purgatory for three faults which had caused him to arrive in this state. Innocent asked St. Lutgarda to come to his assistance, saying, “Alas! It is terrible; and will last for centuries if you do not come to my assistance. In the name of Mary, who has obtained for me the favour of appealing to you, help me!” At that moment he disappeared and St. Lutgarda informed her sisters of what she had seen."
So, Christ, who is alive, can't/doesn't/won't speak to people, but dead Popes will. AND people who claim that Christ speaks to them are daft, bonkers, and silly... but some lady named Lutgarda can say a dead Pope appeared to and spoke to HER... even asking her (not Christ)... in the name of Mary (not Christ)... to get him out of purgatory... and achieve "sainthood."
Very interesting...
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While distinct in their relations with one another, they are one in all else. The whole work of creation and grace is a single operation common to all three divine persons, who at the same time operate according to their unique properties, so that all things are from the Father, through the Son and in the Holy Spirit.[6] The three persons are co-equal, co-eternal and consubstantial.
The only statement in this paragraph that is correct isn't even totally accurate. It is that "all things are
from the Father... yes...
through the Son... yes... and
in holy spirit! There is no "the" before holy spirit. Ever... except as man has placed it there. There is only a "the" when referring to the [holy] Spirit that is Christ. Or... show me differently.
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Trinitarianism (one deity in three persons) contrasts with nontrinitarian positions which include Binitarianism (one deity in two persons, or two deities), Unitarianism (one deity in one person, analogous to Jewish interpretation of the Shema and Muslim belief in Tawhid), Oneness Pentecostalism or Modalism (one deity manifested in three separate aspects), and social trinitarianism (three persons united by mutual love and accord).
I can only speak to two of there: first, that the THEORY of a trinity, as dear PSacto (peace, dear one!) and you have EXPLAINED it,
points to "binitarianism." Well, adds up to it, if you do the
math according to what you two have explained. The chart you included notwithstanding (it doesn't add up, either, but seems to be yet another "golden calf" for people to look at and go, "Oh, yeah, NOW I get it!" even when they don't...). However, since my Lord said the Father is GREATER than him, although the two are in union (which is absolutely understanding, as he is in union with US, yet HE is greater than US)... I would have to dismiss that term.
The other is Unitarianism which, before my Lord was glorified and BECAME the [holy] Spirit... was really the case. Hence, the Jewish and Muslim (or Isaac and Ishmael) interpretation. Because JAH said to Isaac's children ISRAEL (and apparently, to Isaac's brother, Ishmael)...
before His Son arrived and was glorified:
"Hear, Israel: JaHVeH the God of US (or, "Elohiym" - oh, but, wait, JAH is 'Elohiym'!?? Well, doo-dah... duh)...
one JaHVeH." Wait. Not "three in one JaHVeH"? Not "one in two JaHVeH"? Not "one in three but really only two JaHVeH?" Just ONE? Yes, just one... because the SON had not yet attained to the HIGHER glory set before HIM: to sit on God's THRONE, AS "God". Because he had not yet INHERITED the KINGDOM of God.
But now HERE's a [very] interesting piece of trivia:
The original FOMENTERS of the "trinity" doctrine were some men referred to as the "Cappadocian Fathers." Who were these men? You can read about that, here:
http://wikipedia.org/wiki/Cappadocian_FathersWhat's most notable to ME is that not only were they the primary fomenters of the doctrine, but... there were three of THEM: Basil the Great (330-379), bishop of Caesarea; Basil's younger brother Gregory of Nyssa (c.332-395), bishop of Nyssa; and a close friend, Gregory of Nazianzus (329-389), who Patriarch of Constantinople.
Three guys: two of them brothers and the other a
close friend. Hmmmmm...
But here's some interesting trivia about the word "trinity" itself (found here:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trinity#Etymology):
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The English word "Trinity" is derived from Latin "Trinitas", meaning "the number three, a triad". This abstract noun is formed from the adjective "trinus" (three each, threefold, triple), as the word "unitas" is the abstract noun formed from "unus" (one).
The corresponding word in Greek is "Τριάς", meaning "a set of three" or "the number three".
The first recorded use of this Greek word in Christian theology (though not about the Divine Trinity) was by Theophilus of Antioch in about 170. He wrote:
In like manner also the three days which were before the luminaries, are types of the Trinity [Τριάδος], of God, and His Word, and His wisdom. And the fourth is the type of man, who needs light, that so there may be God, the Word, wisdom, man.
Tertullian, a Latin theologian who wrote in the early 3rd century, is credited as being the first to use the Latin words "Trinity", "person" and "substance" to explain that the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are "one in essence—not one in Person".
One of the "sources" for the above is QUITE interesting, particularly as to why some of those who don't believe the Trinity doctrine don't, and those who do, do (I don't fall among either any of these groups). Interestingly, the site states, under "History of the Doctrine of the Trinity," that:
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The doctrine of the Trinity took centuries to develop,
Why, if (1) holy spirit OR the Holy Spirit was leading/guilding/directing/teaching, and/or (2) the Bible was/is inerrant??
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but the roots of the doctrine can be seen from the first century.
Well, let's see if that's true:
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The word "Trinity" is not found in the New Testament, nor is the doctrine explicitly taught there.
Uh-ohhhhh... problem. 'Cause without at least those two things... given no profession of leading through holy spirit... or BY the Holy Spirit (Christ)... then it's mere speculation, isn't it? But how can mere speculation be truth?????
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However, foundations of the concept of the Trinity can be seen in the New Testament, especially in the Gospel of John, one of the latest and most theologically developed of the New Testament books.
Really? Where in "John" (which is interesting, because "John" isn't even John... but Lazarus, but ho-kay, let's look to "John")? The comment cites
Matthew 28:19; John 1:1; and John 10:30. Let's look at the verses from "John" first:
"In the beginning was the Word: the Word was with God and the Word was God." John 1:1So, okay, we've got the Word (or Christ, the Son, etc.) and God. Two. The Word (Christ, the Son) WITH God. So, okay... even two in one. But still only TWO... in one. No, the Word and the Holy Spirit was with God. No, the Word and the Holy Spirit were God. No God was with the Word and the Holy Spirit. Nope. Just the Word...and God. Two. Not three, at least not here.
How about
John 10:30:
"The Father and I are one."Okay, so we have the Father... and "I" (Christ, the Son). Two. Not the Father, I, and the Holy Spirit. Not the Holy Spirit, the Father, and I. No, still only two. Not looking like "trinity" (i.e., THREE in one) math, to ME... but I could be wrong.
Let's move on then to
Matthew 28:19. For THIS one, though, I am going to go to the Greek. I think it's important to do so. So, here, from the Greek:
"... baptizing them in the name of the father and son and holy spirit."Oh, but wait... it doesn't say "IN" the name of the father, does it? The Greek word for "in" is "en" (Strong's G1722); yet the Greek word USED here is... "eis". What word is THAT?? It is Strong's G1519 (oh, oops!)... and means "inTO". And what happened to the capitals?? There are no capitals in Greek. So, men had to choose where to use them. How did they know WHERE to do so, though? I mean, without just guessing? Holy spirit? The Holy Spirit? Or... more speculation?
How about this:
"... baptizing them... in the father's name... INTO the Son... WITH holy spirit."Hmmmmmmmmm... But is there anything in the writings to substantiate THIS transliteration? You betcha there is!
BUT... rather than just give that information right now, I am directed to exhort you to go to Christ... whom YOU call "Lord," yourself... and ask HIM... whether this latter renditition is correct or not... and if so, for HIM to tell you, give you proof, show you were it is "written," so that YOU will know the truth about it... FROM the Truth. And THAT way, you won't have to say "Shelby" told you. I shared it with you, yes... but absolutely do NOT have to take MY word for it. Indeed, DO not. Go, rather, and ask for yourself. DON'T rely on me... or on Pope Innocent III... or Tertullian... or Basil... or ANY man. Go the One at least ONE of us (me) claims to have received it from... and ask him. For yourself. Just put your faith in HIM... that he WILL respond... and do so IN truth... WITH the truth as to this matter.
If you cannot do that, however... let me know and I will share the verses that corroborate it. Please, though, try him first. For your OWN spiritual well-being... and freedom.
Again, peace to you!
YSSFS of Christ,
Shellama