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PostPosted: Fri Jan 01, 2016 1:57 pm 
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I have been reading Hebrews 4-7 over the past couple of days, just finished chapter 7, and I had an epiphany!

Heb 7:1 starts out saying, "For this Melchizedek...," so we know who is being discussed.

Heb 7:3 says of him, "He is without father or mother or geneology, having neither beginning of days nor end of life, but resembling the Son of God he continues a priest forever."

Ok, this is interesting. This seems to still be talking about Melchizedek. Note the "but resembling" part? The Greek is aphōmoiōmenos, meaning "I assimilate; make like to". This is the only place where this word is found. Assimilate makes no sense in this context. The root words are apo and homoioó, "from" or "away from" and "make like". Some translations read "and made like the Son of God". So, it seems like this is talking about Melchizedek here, and not Christ. I cannot explain this. If it is really talking about Melchizedek, then it is saying that Melchizedek is a priest forever. This verse also implies that Melchizedek never died and that he continues to live. I can't wrap my head around this just yet.

But, here is where the real epiphany starts:
Heb 7:11-12 (from the ESV):
Now if perfection had been attainable through the Levitcal priesthood (for under it the people received the law,) what further need would there have been for another priest to arise after the order of Melchizedek, rather than one named after the order of Aaron? For when there is a change in the priesthood, there is necessarily a change in the law as well. For the one of whom these things are spoken belonged to another tribe, from which no one has ever served at the alter. For it is evident that our Lord was descended from Judah, and in connection with that tribe Moses said nothing about priests.

My ephinany is this: There are some who feel we are still under the Law because Christ said he did not come to destroy the Law but to fulfill it. Fine. But what these verses say is this:
Christ is a DIFFERENT KIND OF PRIEST. He is not from the same line of priests as Levi, or that were permitted in the Law. He came from a different "order" (arrangement, appointed succession, position/rank), that of Melchizedek, and because of that, there is a CHANGE IN LAW.

Anyone who tries to force us to follow the Law is trying to force us to be part of the old "order."

Of course, I have a bazillion questions about Melchizedek. I always accepted the WT view that "the order of Melchizedek" meant that Christ was like him in the sense of being a king and a priest. But that is not at all what these verses are saying. These verses are saying that Melchizedek translates to "king of righteousness" and "king of peace" (Heb 7:2) and that he has unending life and that his "order" is different than the "order of Aaron." That is incredible to me, if face value here is really true. What this says to me is that Melchizedek was the beginning of a special order of priests, and Christ is the end of that order, with his priesthood (perhaps both of their priesthoods???) lasting forever. At least, that's how I'm reading it. And if my understanding is correct, then it's AWESOME and clarifies a ton of things, especially around the question: are we under the Law today?

Just thought I'd share and look for some comments. Maybe you have something to help clarify all this for me.


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PostPosted: Fri Jan 01, 2016 2:19 pm 
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Quote:
Heb 7:11-12 (from the ESV):
Now if perfection had been attainable through the Levitcal priesthood (for under it the people received the law,) what further need would there have been for another priest to arise after the order of Melchizedek, rather than one named after the order of Aaron? For when there is a change in the priesthood, there is necessarily a change in the law as well. For the one of whom these things are spoken belonged to another tribe, from which no one has ever served at the alter. For it is evident that our Lord was descended from Judah, and in connection with that tribe Moses said nothing about priests.

My ephinany is this: There are some who feel we are still under the Law because Christ said he did not come to destroy the Law but to fulfill it. Fine. But what these verses say is this:
Christ is a DIFFERENT KIND OF PRIEST. He is not from the same line of priests as Levi, or that were permitted in the Law. He came from a different "order" (arrangement, appointed succession, position/rank), that of Melchizedek, and because of that, there is a CHANGE IN LAW.

Anyone who tries to force us to follow the Law is trying to force us to be part of the old "order."


Yes, excellent! I forgot about that verse, and never thought to use it to help others see that we are not under the old law.

**

I always thought that Melchizidek was a foreshadowing of Christ. Not that Christ was like Melchizidek, but that Melchizidek was 'like' Christ, in that he was a king-priest, and his rule lasts forever (perhaps lasting forever in Christ). So that Melchizidek can help us to see Christ and His rule. Like how the relationship between Joshua and Pharaoh helps us see the relationship between Christ and God. Joshua was given all authority over Pharaoh's belongings and second only to Pharaoh, just as Christ is given authority over all of God's belongings, second only to God, Himself.


I have not thought beyond that, nor thought to ask beyond that.


But thank you Leaving for sharing what you received in understanding on the change in priesthood, change in law.



Peace to you,
your servant and sister, and fellow slave of Christ,
tammy


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PostPosted: Sat Jan 02, 2016 10:11 am 
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This is interesting; but the question in my mind is "why will we need a priest forever? Surely there will come a time when intercession is no longer needed." Or does it just mean that the priest lives forever?


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PostPosted: Sat Jan 02, 2016 12:06 pm 
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Quote:
why will we need a priest forever? Surely there will come a time when intercession is no longer needed

That's actually a good question.

The word "forever" in Heb 7:3 is diēnekḗs. HELPS Word Studies says:

Quote:
1336 diēnekḗs (or diēnekēs, derived from 1223 /diá, "thoroughly," which intensifies 1308 /diaphérō, "to bear") – properly, bear all the way across, in an unbroken (non-stop) fashion; to persist all the way, to the (intended) end, i.e. "unbroken, continuous . . . perpetually, forever" (Abbott-Smith).


Based on this, it may be that we won't need a priest forever. I don't know for sure, though, but it seems possible.


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PostPosted: Sun Jan 03, 2016 12:00 pm 
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I am not sure if I am the one to respond to questions raised in this post (morning and peace to you, dear At!), but I will share first what I have received regarding your question:

Quote:
why will we need a priest forever? Surely there will come a time when intercession is no longer needed


First, the statements don't actually say we NEED a priest forever, but that Christ will BE a king/[high] priest forever. Which is true... since his kingdom will never come to an end:

"For to us a child is born,
to us a son is given,
and the government will be on his shoulders.
And he will be called
Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God,
Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.
Of the greatness of his government and peace
there will be no end
.
He will reign on David’s throne
and over his kingdom,
establishing and upholding it
with justice and righteousness
from that time on and forever
."
Isaiah 9:6, 7

And...

"And behold, you will conceive in your womb and bear a son, and you shall name Him [Jesus]. “He will be great and will be called the Son of the Most High; and the Lord God will give Him the throne of His father David; and He will reign over the house of Jacob forever, and His kingdom will have no end.” Luke 1:31-33

Since rulership of the kingdom has no end, the kingship would have no end. What, though, of the ROLE of "priest"? We know the role of priest is to offer up sacrifices of atonement for himself and the people. Since Christ's sacrifice covers all people (who put faith in him) for all time, it would cover forever, yes? And so, it doesn't have to be offered up, again. It was already offered up... ONCE... for ALL time. So, it would have no end. EVEN if it had no one [else] to cover.

In addition, Christ is the HIGH Priest. In ancient Israel, the high priest served until he died. Christ, though, does not die... and so his priesthood... CANNOT end:

'... but because [Jesus] lives forever he has a permanent priesthood. Therefore he is able to save completely those who come to God through him, because he always lives to intercede for them. Hebrews 7:24

You might ask, who would even need to be covered? Hopefully, no one. But it would be loving and merciful, would it not, for JAH to allow the PROVISION, should it ever BECOME necessary? That we become immortal does not mean we become unable to sin. Spirit beings are immortal... yet, some of them have sinned, yes? Although immortal (which is NOT the same as perfect - Christ was perfect, and yet died!), like them we will still have FREE will. To do... or not do. To choose. Forever. If not, then we remain slaves, yes? But we are set free, so we COULD choose to turn away... as Adham, the Adversary, and other spirit beings did... yes?

Even so, that is not the purpose of the perpetual priesthood. The purpose is twofold:

1. The PROMISE that it would BE perpetual and never ending... AND

2. That it would "cover" OUR sins... FOREVER. Meaning, JAH could never change His mind and hold us accountable for ANY sin that has been covered (by the blood of Christ). Because his sacrifice... of his OWN blood... which he gave in his capacity AS "High Priest"... covers the sins his blood cleansed... FOREVER.

I hope that helps, dear 'At, and as always, peace to you and your dear household!

YSSFS of Christ,

Shel


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PostPosted: Sun Jan 03, 2016 1:49 pm 
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Greetings to you, as well, dear LQ, and peace to you and your household!

Your's was the question I wasn't sure I was to respond to - I had not heard anything and didn't immediately. I had to ask, first, whether I/we "needed" to know, as to these things... because I know our dear Lord does not withhold from us what we need and nothing had been given us. So, I also had to ask as to whether something would - as I've shared before, I never ask for "knowledge" - again, JAH/Christ withhold nothing from us that we NEED.

I didn't want to push and give the impression I doubted that truth, and so since I'd received nothing on this issue, I decided to let it go. But... I was unable to stop thinking about it. I thought, well, maybe there is something "in there" that is significant and so asked that IF there was and was either of benefit or at least of no harm, that JAH and Christ give me THEIR truth on the matter. I wasn't asking to know but only that if it was okay, that it be from them and no other "source." And that if it was NOT for us to know, then to take the "concern" I felt away. Well, two things occurred: I received a response... and my concern was removed - LOLOL!

What I received that I needed to know... and put my concern to rest... is what I shared with dear At (peace, dear sister!): the purpose for the perpetual priesthood. BUT... I was also given understanding as to your question and I am permitted to share that with you:

Quote:
Heb 7:3 says of him, "He is without father or mother or geneology, having neither beginning of days nor end of life, but resembling the Son of God he continues a priest forever."

Ok, this is interesting. This seems to still be talking about Melchizedek.


It is, yes.

Quote:
Note the "but resembling" part? The Greek is aphōmoiōmenos, meaning "I assimilate; make like to". This is the only place where this word is found. Assimilate makes no sense in this context. The root words are apo and homoioó, "from" or "away from" and "make like". Some translations read "and made like the Son of God". So, it seems like this is talking about Melchizedek here, and not Christ. I cannot explain this.


It is speaking of Melchizedek, not Christ. I am not sure why you think it is speaking of Christ. It is say, however, NOT that Christ is like Melchizedek, but that Melchizedek is made like Christ. The question is, HOW so? Was he made like Christ in that he had no genealogy yet was a king/priest? That his priesthood is forever? Was he LITERALLY like Christ (i.e., a spirit being)? I will respond to that in a bit.

Quote:
If it is really talking about Melchizedek, then it is saying that Melchizedek is a priest forever. This verse also implies that Melchizedek never died and that he continues to live. I can't wrap my head around this just yet.


AHA! You see, it IS possible that Melchizedek never died and continues to live. And he would not have been the only one. Enoch... Elijah... are at least two who never died (and so still live). And there will be MANY more. Speaking of the time of his return, our dear Lord said:

“I am the resurrection and the life. The one who exercises faith in me, even though he dies, will come to life [when I return]; and everyone who is living [when I return] and exercises faith in me will never die at all. John 11:25

Paul further explained (and note, I am editing the NWT to make the statement ACCURATE):

"... brothers, we do not want you to be ignorant about those who are sleeping, so that you may not sorrow as the rest do who have no hope. For if we have faith that [Jesus] died and rose again, so too those who have fallen asleep in [Jesus] God will bring to him. For this is what we tell you by the Master's word, that we the living who survive to the return of the Master will no way precede [TO the Master] those who have fallen asleep; because the Master himself will descend from heaven with a commanding call from the trumpet voice of God's archangel, and those who are dead in union with Christ will rise first. Afterward we the living who are surviving will, together with them, be caught away in clouds to meet the Master in the air; and thus we will always be with the Master." 1 Thessalonians 4:13-17.

This is in line with the resurrection process AND joining to Christ. For instance, starting with the FIRST resurrection and joining to Christ:

1. Christ was raised first - 1 Corinthians 15:22, 23
2. Then, those who, upon the return of Christ, have died but were in union with Christ when they died - 1 Corinthians 15:22, 23
3. Once these are raised, those who are in union with Christ BUT HAVE NOT DIED, are instantly changed - 1 Corinthians 15:51, 52
4. Those is 2. and 3. are given "white robes" (spirit bodies)... and join Christ in the spirit realm ("air/heaven").

[Then, over "a thousand" years later, the 2nd resurrection (which I won't delineate here).]

Like Enoch, Elijah, and these who are changed "in the twinkling of an eye," Melchizedek never saw death. He was simply changed (given a "white robe" - the spirit body), and granted entry. However, also like the former two, he had not been granted entry into the MOST Holy. Just as far into the "temple" compound as the "Courtyard of the Priests." Not until Christ died... and OPENED THE WAY [into the MOST Holy]... was entry there possible. Now, just like us, they can enter that innermost part of the "temple." We can do so while still in the flesh; they can do so as spirits.

Quote:
But, here is where the real epiphany starts:
Heb 7:11-12 (from the ESV):
Now if perfection had been attainable through the Levitcal priesthood (for under it the people received the law,) what further need would there have been for another priest to arise after the order of Melchizedek, rather than one named after the order of Aaron? For when there is a change in the priesthood, there is necessarily a change in the law as well. For the one of whom these things are spoken belonged to another tribe, from which no one has ever served at the alter. For it is evident that our Lord was descended from Judah, and in connection with that tribe Moses said nothing about priests.

My ephinany is this: There are some who feel we are still under the Law because Christ said he did not come to destroy the Law but to fulfill it. Fine. But what these verses say is this:
Christ is a DIFFERENT KIND OF PRIEST. He is not from the same line of priests as Levi, or that were permitted in the Law. He came from a different "order" (arrangement, appointed succession, position/rank), that of Melchizedek, and because of that, there is a CHANGE IN LAW.


YES!!!!!!!!! That's been the point all along! The OLD Law was fulfilled and so is no longer in effect over those who accept the NEW Law. The NEW Law is BETTER than the Old One in that (1) it includes all the GOOD features of the Old Law; (2) does AWAY with the bad feature (death) of the Old Law: and so (3) SURPASSES the Old Law. It is a BETTER law.

Quote:
Anyone who tries to force us to follow the Law is trying to force us to be part of the old "order."


YES! But that old order of MOSES! Because the Melchizedek order REMAINS. And so there is another "feature" to bring out. And THAT is "why Melchizedek"? I'll get to that in a sec.

Quote:
Of course, I have a bazillion questions about Melchizedek. I always accepted the WT view that "the order of Melchizedek" meant that Christ was like him in the sense of being a king and a priest. But that is not at all what these verses are saying. These verses are saying that Melchizedek translates to "king of righteousness" and "king of peace" (Heb 7:2) and that he has unending life and that his "order" is different than the "order of Aaron." That is incredible to me, if face value here is really true.


It IS incredible, but I'm not sure you have it accurate:

Quote:
What this says to me is that Melchizedek was the beginning of a special order of priests,


Yes!

Quote:
and Christ is the end of that order, with his priesthood (perhaps both of their priesthoods???) lasting forever. At least, that's how I'm reading it. And if my understanding is correct, then it's AWESOME and clarifies a ton of things, especially around the question: are we under the Law today?


Yes! And I'm glad that answers that question for you - but the NEW Law should also answer it: you cannot slave for two masters. A woman cannot be loyal to two husbands. You cannot be a bride of Christ, he be your "husband" (or caretaker) and yet submit to ANOTHER man's (Moses') law. THAT, dear brother, is ADULTERY. "Looking at" another... "SO AS TO [have relations] with him/her." One is committing adultery IN THEIR HEART. So, one much choose which "law" they will bind themselves to. Which "husband" they will serve: Moses... or Christ.

Quote:
Just thought I'd share and look for some comments. Maybe you have something to help clarify all this for me.


So, then, to clarify why "Melchizedek" is important:

His name means "My God is a Righteous/Just King." He received that name when he was appointed by JAH to be king of the [city state] of Salem, a small province under Egypt ALL of the land of Canaan belonged to Egypt. The Egyptians WELL knew JAH... which is why:

1. Abraham was sent TO "Egypt" (the land of Canaan);

2. Pharaoh was THERE when Abraham arrived (remember the account of Pharaoah taking Sarah and his chagrin when he found out she was Abram's wife - why would he CARE? He was Pharaoh and could take any woman he wanted - right? Except... another man's wife! By whose LAW, though?);

3. Joseph was sent to Egypt to be appointed second in command under Pharaoh;

4. Jacob's household (Israel) was sent to avoid starvation during the famine that covered "all the earth" (or at least, all of Egypt!);

5. One Pharaoh allowed his own daughter to take a child of Israel into her home to raise as her own son;

6. It was preposterous that a later Pharaoh claimed to NOT know JAH; he absolutely DID know JAH - how can we know? Because (1) as SECOND only to Pharaoh, Joseph would have made CERTAIN that the people of the land knew JAH and (2) we know the Pharaoh that appointed him knew JAH Genesis 41:38-41;

7. The pyramids are NOT "gateways" to the spirit realm, with Egyptians believing they would go there, but rather, they were ALTARS "under" which these kings were buried Revelation 6:9 - they had their bodies mummified with entrails removed because they knew there was a difference between the "hearts and kidneys," the bones (which is what they were trying to preserve - the "spirit" IN the bones), and the rest of "vessel." They absolutely believed in a RESURRECTION... which is why they had all of their valued belongings... and other family members... entombed WITH them - so that all would be THERE... when the "Master returned" and they were woken up!)

Which brings me back to Melchizedek... and his significance: he was a priest of JAH, in the land of Egypt. By means of his name, Abraham recognized this and made an offering TO JAH... by providing for Melchizedek. Proverbs 18:16, 19:17; Luke 6:38 So what? Abraham was LIVING THE LAW (of Christ). Remember, Christ said, "Before Abraham, I am (in existence)?" This Melchizedek was a representative of JAH/Christ who Abraham gave gifts to... and so was blessed BY JAH/Christ, THROUGH the blessing received from Melchizedek. Abraham did by NATURE, what would later become part of the WRITTEN Law (for post-Egyptian Israel, who showed the Law to NOT be written on their hearts... and so had to have it written on stone/paper).

This was not (another) test for Abraham - JAH knew who He was sending to Egypt. Melchizdek was in subjection to the Pharaoh of that time, again, Egypt knowing JAH. Had Abram NOT gifted Melchizedek, he would have shown that JAH's Law was NOT on his heart... and he would NOT have been given the land in which Melchizedek's small city-state was situation. Indeed, through Pharaoh, JAH would have driven him out. Notice, though, that Pharaoh/Egypt did not protest the land given to/received by Abraham. They could have, but again, they too recognized the God OF Abraham. It was the same God as that of Melchizedek... and Egypt. And so they knew who Melchizedek was... and who Abraham was... and why he was there.

And this is why Melichizedek's "geneaology" comes into play: he was not placed over Salem by Pharaoh. In such a case, it would have either been a son of Pharaoh or the son of one of Pharaoh's "nobles" who would have inherited/been granted the land. Melchizedek didn't have such a geneaology. The land was given him by JAH. Since JAH place him there, as king AND priest, no one could questions his geneaology - it didn't matter - he didn't NEED to come from the line of Pharaoh/nobles. Just as Christ didn't need to come from Levi.

ALSO like Christ, no one could take the position or land FROM Melchizedek, either. Thus, his kingdom/priesthood had no beginning (he did not inherit it from his father/uncle and it was not granted him by a man)... nor an end...because the land... Canaan/Israel/Jerusalem... it is still JAH's land. And HE gives it to whomever HE wishes. Including His Son. He has transferred that "ownership" status, however, to a GREATER "Jerusalem" - His "capitol" and spiritual City, NOT made with hands and having REAL "foundations": the NEW Jerusalem. The earthly one has, for now, been rejected.

Since Salem (Jerusalem) last forever... so, too, the kingship/priesthood of Melchizedek. And it will be returned to him.

I have shared with you all that I have received on this matter from my dear Lord, the HOLY One of Israel and Holy Spirit, JAHESHUA, the Chosen One of JAH (MischaJAH)... and have been granted to share with you dear ones here. May those with ears to hear hear and grasp the truth of these things from the Source of them, himself. And may those without ears but wishing and thirsting to receive them, be granted such so as to hear when that One, the [Holy] Spirit, and his Bride say to you:

"Come! Take Life's (his, Christ) water... the holy spirit of God... which water, the blood of the MOST HOLY One of Israel, JAH of Armies, that SPEAKS... and is poured out from the innermost parts of His Son, King, and High Priest, the HOLY One of Israel and Holy Spirit, JAHESHUA, the Chosen One of JAH (MischaJAH)... FREE!"

As always, peace to you and to your dear household!

YSSFS of Christ,

Shel


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PostPosted: Mon Jan 04, 2016 10:35 am 
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Good answer to my question, Shelby - thanks. Now this:
Quote:
Like Enoch, Elijah, and these who are changed "in the twinkling of an eye," Melchizedek never saw death. He was simply changed (given a "white robe" - the spirit body), and granted entry.


this just boggles my mind : ) I have to think about that.


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PostPosted: Mon Jan 04, 2016 4:07 pm 
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It was pretty incredible for me, at first, too, dear 'At (peace and happy new year to you, luv!). But once I was granted to understand what spirit beings truly are (made of), what the "white robe" (spirit body) is... and that we CAN change (Adham certain was changed, wasn't he - he had to be, in order to be taken from outside the garden to inside. This is because "unless one is born of water and spirit" they cannot enter [the spirit realm]. Although Adham's vessel was taken from the earth, it had to be born of water and spirit in order to enter the garden. Once he was given the "long garment of skin," however, the [way] was blocked - he wasn't allowed to take THAT "garment" into the garden.

Same with us, hence, the "chang[ing]... in the twinkling of an eye." We are given evidence of that change with Christ, Moses (who I wasn't given to include before, but now am - I will explain why below), and Elijah:

"After six days [Jesus] took with him Peter, James and John the brother of James, and led them up a high mountain by themselves. There he was transfigured before them. His face shone like the sun, and his clothes became as white as the light. Just then there appeared before them Moses and Elijah, talking with [Jesus]." Matthew 17:1-3

Imagine someone... and their garments... completed irradiated. Notice, now, how the two words are defined:

Quote:
ir·ra·di·ate
iˈrādēˌāt

verb
past tense: irradiated; past participle: irradiated

1. expose to radiation.
synonyms: radiate, charge, blast, shoot;

2. illuminate (something) by or as if by shining light on it.
"sunlight streamed down through stained glass, irradiating the faces of family and friends"
synonyms: illuminate, light (up), cast light upon, brighten, shine on;


This is where problems with mistransliteration come in: it is (wrongly) assumed that the latter definition is meant, when in fact it is the former. The scribes, however, and those scholars who opine to "know" do not know the ESSENCE... SUBSTANCE... of what JAH and Christ... and all spirit beings... ARE. So, they assume Christ's face "shone" LIKE the sun was shining on it. When in fact it "shone" because it was LITERALLY irradiated.

This was the SAME thing with Moses:

"When Moses came down from Mount Sinai with the two tablets of the covenant law in his hands, he was not aware that his face was radiant because he had spoken with JaHVeH. When Aaron and all the Israelites saw Moses, his face was radiant, and they were afraid to come near him. But Moses called to them; so Aaron and all the leaders of the community came back to him, and he spoke to them. Afterward all the Israelites came near him, and he gave them all the commands JaHVeH had given him on Mount Sinai.

"When Moses finished speaking to them, he put a veil over his face. But whenever he entered JaHVeH’s presence to speak with him, he removed the veil until he came out. And when he came out and told the Israelites what he had been commanded, they saw that his face was radiant. Then Moses would put the veil back over his face until he went in to speak with JaHVeH."
Exodus 34:29-35

The Hebrew word for "radiant" or "shone" is qaran (H7160) and means:

"to radiate, to emit beams..."

Peter, James, and John not only saw our Lord radiating, but Moses and Elijah (in a much lesser state of "shining/radiation"), as well. This is because these two had been changed to spirit bodies... to "white robes". Not white, literally, as in color, but "white" as in CLEAN, UNblemished, so that they COULD be in the spirit realm, conversing with Christ. Our Lord's body is DESCRIBED as "white" (some Bibles say "dazzling white, whiter than anyone in the world could bleach them"), but this is just vernacular - the only way the situation could be described. Because the

I was not permitted to include this account or the other about Moses because unlike Enoch, Elijah, and others, Moses did die. What happened to HIS body, however, could cause some a bit of confusion (John 16:12). That's because his body was transfigured after his death... and after the dispute over it was resolved (because of his error, it was argued that he belonged to Death and thus SHOULD have gone to the World of the Dead; however, on Christ's behalf, Michael prevailed and won Moses' body, which was given over to be transfigured). Jude 9; Daniel 10:13; Revelation 12:7, 8; Deuteronomy 34:5, 6

What would be confusing? That he was changed... but not resurrected . Resurrection involves the body of flesh. Hence, for him to have been "resurrected", he would have had to return to THIS world, FIRST, in body... and THEN be changed, (as those who take part in the "first" resurrection Revelation 20:4-6 will be):

"For the Lord himself will come down from heaven, with a loud command, with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet call of God, and the dead in Christ will rise first. After that, we who are still alive and are left will be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air." 1 Thessalonians 4:16, 17

All of this might be hard to wrap one's head around, yes, if one is still thinking in terms of [things of] the "earth" (physical realm), and not understanding the (very) ADVANCED stage of "beings" we're talking about. Beings NOT of this realm (where matter and particles rule), but of another world... realm... dimension... where, I dunno, "antimatter"... "antiparticles"... "positrons"... or perhaps something even so advanced we haven't even thought of, let alone theorized about... so forget discovered... prevails. Where things are the opposite, in great measure, to things... the "realities"... of this world.

And no, it's not "sci-fi," per se. At least, not sci-fi as we humans imagine it. No monsters (well, per se - we tend to call whatever isn't like us... and especially whatever isn't pleasing to our eyes "monsters", though, so... ). Our imaginations are truly primitive here. but I do hope this helps.

Peace to you, all!

YSSFS of Christ,

Shel


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PostPosted: Mon Jan 04, 2016 5:03 pm 
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Interesting. I had not considered that Melchizedek had been transformed like Enoch or Elijah.


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PostPosted: Mon Jan 04, 2016 6:50 pm 
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Neither had I, dear LQ (peace to you, dear brother!). In fact, I had never thought much as to Melchizedek. I think the last time he came up for me was when our dear Lord had me read some of the Armana Letters (to corroborate that Egypt did indeed hold the land of Canaan) and that was some years ago.

We can know that what he said as to this (Melchizedek not dying) is true, however, by looking at the High Priesthood: it ran until the one holding the position died. The only way Melchizedek could have been a priest FOREVER, then, is to not have died. Same as Christ: if he died, then his kingship/priesthood would end. Christ does not die, hence, he is a king and priest "in the order/manner of Melchizedek," who also did not die.

I hope that helps!

Peace to you and to your household!

YSSFS of Christ,

Shel


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