Loz wrote:
It also means he is NOT an unfathomable mystery, quite the contrary, and it is contradicting scripture to misrepresent Him this way. So we will have to agree to disagree. Religion did oppress the people in terrible ways, and even in the 1950s in Britain there were people, Catholics actually, that I knew personally, who were forbidden to possess a bible in anything but Latin. Now, acknowledging Proverbs 2, what possible benefit to them could that be?
Loz x
I agree that it is quite incorrect to deny anyone the written word of God.
There is no excuse for that and people NEED to smarten up.
It should be noted that when bible became available to people, the RCC was the one that put the most out there.
The RSV, the NRSV and the Jerusalem Bible are/were approved by the Vatican.
There is NO prohibition to owing a bible and there never was.
http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index ... 936AAxJr6Ghttp://www.biblica.com/bibles/faq/18/That said, it was true that the church did ban the possession of "non-approved" bibles:
Quote:
"Canon 14. We prohibit also that the laity should not be permitted to have the books of the Old or New Testament; we most strictly forbid their having any translation of these books."- The Church Council of Toulouse 1229 ADSource: Heresy and Authority in Medieval Europe,Scolar Press, London, Englandcopyright 1980 by Edward Peters,ISBN 0-85967-621-8, pp. 194-195
The Council of Tarragona of 1234, in its second canon, ruled that:
"No one may possess the books of the Old and New Testaments, and if anyone possesses them he must turn them over to the local bishop within eight days, so that they may be burned..."- The Church Council of Tarragona 1234 AD; 2nd Cannon - Source : D. Lortsch, Historie de la Bible en France, 1910, p.14.
The problem with the above is this:
The Council of Toulouse was a regional council, not an ecumenical council. Regional councils have do not have authority on the Church as a whole.
This council was called to deal with the Albigensian/Manichean heresy that was running amok in souther France. The texts it was referring to were doctored versions of the Bible which the Albigensian/Manichean created in order to support their heretical teachings. So no, this council did no forbid the reading and study of authentic copies of the Bible.
There was no Council of Tarragona in 1234. There was a provincial council in 1242 to deal with the details of the Inquisition. Presuming the author simply got the year wrong, I do know the history of this area and time in a general way. Muslim Moors, who had recently been ejected from this region, had produced doctored versions of the Bible, much like the Albgensians had done in France. This was done to support the view that it was Ishmael, not Issac, who Abraham blessed, that Jesus was not crucified and that another even greater prophet would follow Jesus. Many many copies of these false scriptures had been spread throughout the land during the Moorish occupation of Spain.
SO, in short, SOME kings and some regionals DID ban "non-approved" (hereitcal - think NWT) bibles.
As for our agree to disagree, that is fine of course.
I just don't think we are disagreeing per say.
I am simply stating that while we may know ALL we NEED to know about God through Christ, as human we can NOT fully comprehend ALL that God is.