xjwsforChrist

Interestingly, this depends on the Greek translation used.
ἄρα ἡ πίστις ἐξ ἀκοῆς, ἡ δὲ ἀκοὴ διὰ ῥήματος Χριστοῦ. (Wescott & Hort, 1881)
ἄρα ἡ πίστις ἐξ ἀκοῆς ἡ δὲ ἀκοὴ διὰ ῥήματος Θεοῦ (Stephanus Textus Receptus, 1550)

Thus, agreed on each part of the transliteration except for that end one. Is it God or is it Christ?
http://biblehub.com/text/romans/10-17.htm

EDIT: BTW, the Emphatic Diaglott has "Θεοῦ" (God). The Kingdom Interlinear has "Χριστοῦ" (Christ). The NWT is heavily based on the Wescott & Hort manuscripts, though not totally. The Kingdom Interlinear's Greek text is purely Wescott & Hort, according to the Forward.

The voice... or Word... of God that SPEAKS, dear LQ (again, peace to you!)... IS Christ. God speaks to us BY MEANS OF/THROUGH that One, His Son.

I hope that helps and, again, peace to you!

Your servant and a slave of Christ,

Shellama

Wasn't disagreeing. I believe Christ is the Word of God, and I believe God speaks by means of him. I was merely pointing out the apparent discrepancies in the Greek texts.

Oh, sorry, dear LQ (peace!) - didn't take you as disagreeing at all, but perhaps asking (per the question mark). Didn't get it was rhetorical, luv! Beggin' yer pardon!

Peace!

Shellama