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As I laid awake early this morning, I pondered this quite a bit more and have a new theory. It's bold. It goes against all conventional thought on this matter. Ready?
The "little flock" and the "other sheep" have nothing to do with each other, per se.
Let me explain.
I'm all "ears," dear one (mornin' and peace to you!)... as to what you have to share on this matter AND what our dear Lord might share - LOLOL!
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First, the phrase "little flock" is used when Christ is addressing his disciples, even though thousands of people were around them. We know this because Luke 12:22 says, "Then he said to his disciples..." After addressing his disciples as "little flock", he told them an illustration about having their lamps burning, waiting for their master's return. (Verses 35-40). Then, in verse 41, Peter asks: "Lord, are you telling this illustration just to us or also to everyone?" Peter understood that Christ was talking directly to the disciples, thus the phrase "just to us". However, Peter wondered if it applied also to the thousands in the crowd around him. That question never really got answered.
From this, I surmise that the phrase "little flock" applies directly to the disciples THEN PRESENT when Christ was talking. It did NOT apply to the thousands in the crowd around. This phrase has NO BEARING on us today.
I am hearing different, though. There are many times when our dear Lord was asked something... and did not (directly) respond. Many times, it was so that the one hearing could draw the conclusion. That such one could THINK... in line with OTHER things he said... versus him responding. That is what occurred here. Your position is that he didn't respond to Peter because he WAS just meaning Peter and those with him. Is it possible, though, that he didn't respond... because of the plethora of questions saying he was NOT just speaking about those ones would evoke? Imagine: he is speaking to a group of Jews... to whom he would have to explain his calling/acceptance of GENTILES, also! First, some from the other 10-tribes (who the Jews pretty much considered defiled and sworn enemies at this time), THEN from the non-Israelite nations (who ARE unclean/defiled, at least according to the Law). How would those present have reacted to that?! Do you recall how he got PETER to accept the news? And WHEN?
Dear one, had he told them THAT... that there were others, including non-Jews/Israelites... at THAT time... they WOULD have been stumbled! They would have concluded that the priests and Pharisees were RIGHT... that he WAS an imposter and against God.. and so even THESE would have gone off and stopped following him. So, he COULDN'T tell Peter/them that it applied to more than just them. He did not clarify... OUT OF LOVE. Because even then would have stumbled at the truth he would have told them. He told them, though, did he not:
"I am many things to tell you, but YOU ARE NOT ABLE TO BEAR THEM yet."
They would NOT have been able to bear that information. At least, not before they received HOLY SPIRIT... the "FRUIT" of which... is LOVE. Prior to that event, they didn't HAVE (enough) love... to welcome any non-Jews. Indeed, when they DID accept them, many of them tried to put such ones under Law! Tried to make them get circumcised, etc.

So, he couldn't have responded to Peter. Why? As he said (to ME):
"If you can't say what is TRUE... say nothing at all!"He said nothing... at all. But let's continue...
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What about "other sheep"? When this term was used, it was in completely different circumstances. Christ was not comparing other sheep to a little flock. Not at all. He was instead describing a different flock altogether. The SIZE of the flock was not part of the comparison. Where the sheep came from was.
This is TRUE, yes!
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"He calls his own sheep by name and leads them out. When he has brought all his own out, he goes ahead of them, and the sheep follow him, because they know his voice." (John 10:3,4)
First through the door are HIS OWN SHEEP. After that will be sheep that were then NOT HIS OWN, but will BECOME HIS. THESE are the "other sheep". "They will become one flock, one shepherd". (John 10:16)
But you miss something VERY important here, luv, and that's his words as to the "other sheep". He said of THEM:
"I HAVE other sheep not of this fold."Or perhaps:
"There are other sheep which belong to me that are not in this sheep pen."In either case, such sheep ARE ALSO his... yes? Because he didn't say, "I WILL have other sheep..." or "There are other sheep that WILL belong to me..." yes?
So, "little flock" has no relation to "other sheep". "Little flock" was simply a phrase used to describe the disciples then present when Christ was speaking to them.
Good theory. Not sure it's accurate. Will address that further in a separate post and we'll see.
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Does this mean that his own sheep are not a little flock? No. All I'm saying is that these two phrases are so often used together as some sort of comparison, but when reading carefully, I realize that they are not part of the comparison at all. The comparison is who Christ's own sheep are at first, then other sheep come who becomes his later.
Sorry, but I can't agree with this. First, in light of his words (the "other sheep" were already his, too)... and second, because those who belong to Christ were chosen... even before he came. They were the Father's... and He gave them to His Son. And they include even those who came BEFORE our dear Lord came HERE in the flesh. Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, Moses, Joshua, David, the Prophets... Remember, the "foundation" of the NEW Jerusalem is the Apostles... AND the Prophets.
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Thoughts?
Yep. In my next post (which I have been working on since last night - LOLOLOL!). But I am directed not to post that... at least until you've had a chance to read this and (perhaps) reconsider the "theory" stated HERE (as to whether the other sheep belongs to Christ when he spoke the words at issue).
Peace to you!
YSSFS of Christ,
Shel