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Yes, that's what I thought of when you said there was no opening there; I had this silly thought of the Lord poking two holes in there first. heehee (Kinda like three stooges meets Pillsbury dough boy)
LOLOLOL! No, that's not quite what I saw, dear At (peace, luv!). I saw my Lord pick up some "dirt", spit on it (in his hand), dip his fingers into it, and smear it on the man's face (which had no eyes - I did not see "lids", as in "closed" although blind eyes). I then understood what was taking place... my Lord was "forming" eyes for the man... because I saw the formation "from the dust" of Adham. I did not see the man "open" his eyes; I only saw him WITH eyes afterward. And that is what made me realize he had NO eyes before, versus he had some but they didn't work and his lids were closed over them.
And learning THAT... helped ME learn even more... as I will share with you now.
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I was looking this up in the Greek interlinear and sometimes it said eyes opened and sometimes it said gained sight
Yeah, that might depend on who later "interpreted" or transliterated the writing, dear one. Or who transliterated the verse, AND... and THEN who (later) "interpreted" it! And... what such ones either thought... or wanted readers to think! LOLOLOL! But for the simplest of circumstances, our dear Lord just gave me an example to share that might help you/those who don't quite understand: where one might interpret the Greek word
katecheo at
Luke 1:4 as "taught" or "instructed"... the TRUE meaning is "learned of." Wait. ORALLY learned of. As in, someone TOLD someone. And so, "learned OF" as in one "came to know [of] because someone TOLD them." Unfortunately, the word has been mistransliterated in OTHER languages (Latin, English, etc.) and so misinterpreted to mean "taught" or "instructed." With a more formal denotation (like, in a class or via some purposeful instructional process). But it only means that someone told someone (Theophilus) of the things Luke was now writing out IN ORDER for him.
Can you see how that could occur? How where one may have learned OF something orally, the absence/oversight of the "of"... OR the mistransliteration/misinterpretation of the word
katecheo COULD be make the word misrendered as "taught"... or "instructed"?
And this is the case... in virtually EVERY case... where someone who took it upon himself/herself to interpret what was written about the account didn't understand THEMSELVES what actually occurred. RATHER than let Christ, the Holy Spirit, TELL and LEAD them (into ALL truth, including the truth about the event). In such instance, they WILL misinterpret (because interpretation does not BELONG to them)... and so misstate a thing... and so misteach a thing. And... others are then MISled.
That's why it's important... IMPERATIVE... for US to remember that interpretations
BELONG to JAH. They are NOT ours, they can NEVER be ours... they are HIS... and so the glory must ALWAYS go Him when one IS given accurate understanding. And one
glorifies Him... by doing what HE said... and glorifying ("kissing")
the Son. Always and in
every instant. Otherwise, one is either only leaning upon their OWN understanding... and you get what you described above: something stated two (or more) different ways, one or more of which appear to confuse the matter, if not outright contradict Christ himself... or one is taking the glory for himself/herself. Which is, if they DID receive from Christ, the Holy Spirit... blasphemy. The same as stating that something they did NOT receive from that One came from him (i.e., false prophesying).
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I guess that's different words in the Greek but I don't really know - they look different, that's all I know.
Like English, different letters/symbols can make a word mean different tenses, etc., or even an entirely different thing...
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But since I read that, now I have MORE questions. In verse 11, where the translation is "gained sight", under the Greek word, it says "I saw AGAIN". And again in verse 15, it says 'how he saw AGAIN'. So my obvious question is since he was blind from birth, why use the word 'again'?
Again, I had to ask... and what I learned from my Lord is sublime. First, he said that it's a misunderstanding based on the (erroneous) use of the Greek word
anavlέpo, which means "recover" (as in previously lost) sight, which word was, apparently, "used somewhat loosely" in this case. (See Thayer's:
http://www.blbclassic.org/lang/lexicon/ ... G308&t=KJV). In MOST instances, however, the word was used to denote the RECEIPT of sight. The thing is, it never occurred to those who did the transliteration that some who could NEVER see (due to having no eyes) could EVER see. So... from THEIR perspective, the account COULDN'T have been talking about someone who, from their POV, could NEVER see... but HAD to have been talking about someone who had LOST their ability to see and had it restored... or could have it restored (because they had eyes, just those that could not see).
One thing that helped them come to this (erroneous) conclusion is OUR sight... those of us who HAVE physical eyes. Christ promised to restore sight to the blind. They take this to mean that since we HAVE physical eyes, we just can't SEE spiritual things (anymore).
What they don't understand... what I didn't know but have just learned (and learned that this is why we are being given the truth as to the man's lack of eyes) is that we NEVER could see... spiritually...
unless and until we are GIVEN eyes TO see. Which is the SAME...
as with ears to HEAR!
My Lord directed me to re-read
Psalm 40:6, rendered by many Bible versions as:
In sacrifice and offering you have not delighted,
but you have given me an open ear."The words, "given me an open ear," also rendered as "my ears you have opened," is LITERALLY translated as "excavated" or "dug out"... ears. So, just as he showed me the man with no eyes, he THEN showed me a SPIRIT body...
that had no ears... and JAH then FORMING those ears. That is why, dear one, I am often directed to state, "Let those who HAVE ears to hear..." and "May you be GIVEN ears to hear"... and things like that. Some take issue with how I "speak" when I share these things, but I have shared many times that I share it just as he gives it to me. I did not understand, until this matter (the man being given eyes), though, that when our dear Lord stated that (Psalm 40:6 - yes, that was him speaking, not David!)... he wasn't saying he HAD ears but such were stopped up, so, please Father, open them, but that the Father GAVE him ears... dug out/excavated them in his body... so that he COULD hear!
And so then I heard, as to the man without eyes,
"His 'form' had not been completed, child, before he was sent into the world, so that the Father could FINISH him... THROUGH me." I thought... "Wow." Just... wow.
Of course, I HAD to ask whether that meant that ALL who come into the world with unfinished forms... or DE-formity... do so for the same reason? My Lord's response was, no, that is not the case. It was the case with THAT man... as well as some (many) of those he healed: they carried sin in THEIR flesh, which sin HE was sent... to "take away." And he did so, taking it to the grave in HIS body.
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Also an interesting thing I read, also verse 11: Answered that one The man the one being said Jesus clay made and he anointed upon of me the eyes.
Yes, but in a physical sense, to "anoint" simply means to put something "upon" or "on" someone... usually in a pouring or spreading fashion. It means the same in a spiritual sense, as to "pouring." God's spirit... or blood... is poured out from WITHIN Christ... and UPON those he chooses.
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I also wondered was this painless? And if there is anesthetic in the saliva?
Per my Lord... there was no pain at all (and even had there been, the very BLESSING of what the man received would have overshadowed/compensated for it!). But he said there was none... and then reminded me of what he said through Solomon:
"The blessings of JAH makes one rich, and He adds no pain with it." Proverbs 10:22I am sure the man believed he had received a blessing! We certainly do, yes? No pain, though, whether technically or literally, comes with a blessing from JAH. Even where one undergoes physical pain for the sake of JAH and/or Christ, such pain is tempered by the rejoicing that comes with knowing one is being persecuted FOR the Christ. Remember the Prophets, the Apostles, Stephen, Paul, etc. ALL considered it a blessing to suffer in a LITERAL way for the Christ.
BUT... and I am going to share this because I think you dear ones might find it interesting. I won't say what I "saw"... because I am still trying to come to grips with it myself... but think of JAH's energy... and think "laser beam." I CANNOT say that that is what I saw - I really cannot say WHAT I saw; I truly do not know. What I DO recall, though, is remembering that they are not in our PAST... but in our FUTURE. Which is why/how TRUE prophecy can be: the one issuing it already KNOWS what will occur... and usually that's because it has ALREADY occurred (in such Ones' past).
I know that might sound confusing, but I can only describe it like... well, picture two trains traveling on parallel tracks. One travelling much faster than the other and so crossing territory long before the other... but able to somehow send information BACK to the other as to what it WILL encounter in its route. That ability is ENHANCED, however, because although those on the one train have already traveled over the tracks that the other must still cover, but see what those on that train DO at intervals... and send information back BEFORE that. I don't know if I'm painting a good picture... but it's like that: they KNOW what we will do/what will occur in this world... because it has already occurred. OUR real time is their past. Their real time is OUR future.
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I don't know why I am fascinated and in awe of this;
Because it's all fascinating and aweSOME?? LOLOLOL! I mean, I think so!
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I believe he can do these things, but these vivid details like this just make it real.
Yes, they do... and SEEING them, even more! For that reason, I EXHORT and IMPLORE you ALL: ASK for the holy spirit that gives us eyes and ears! Just remember, your asking must be for a "righteous" purpose: NOT personal gain... but for the building up of the Body! To give praise, honor, and glory to the MOST High God and MOST HOLY One of Israel, JAH of Armies... and His Son, the HOLY One of Israel and HOLY Spirit, JAHESHUA, the Chosen One OF JAH (MischaJah). ANY other reason is folly - it won't be granted. Because there is NO OTHER reason for us to HAVE ears and eyes at this time... except perhaps to mislead others. It won't be given if that is the underlying intent.
And so, one must cleanse the INSIDE of the cup, the physical body. Because nothing is hidden from them, even though we currently reside in flesh that hides what's inside from other HUMANS and spirits. We can fool ourselves and THINK we only want it for an righteous purpose... but they will know if that's true or not.
If, though, LOVE is the SOLE motive... love for JAH and Christ... such that one wants to do THEIR will... and not one's own... including telling folks about THEM... the TRUTH about them... for THEIR glory and honor... and not because one wants to be "somebody" or "something"... or have others think they are... then it MUST be granted. It would be UNrighteous for the MOST HOLY One of Israel to withhold it! Because... HE made a promise. And HE... cannot, does not... lie.
I hope this helps, dear, dear At! Truly!
YSSFS of Christ,
Shellamar