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Either Luke got it wrong, or Paul lied.
Neither is the case, dear LQ (peace to you, dear brother!). I can see how you might think one or the other is... but I don't see (or hear) what you see as to either account. Let me show you.
You state:
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At Acts 9:17-30, we find the account of just after Saul was chosen by our Lord.
Then you quote:
"When he arrived in Jerusalem/On arriving in Jerusalem"...May I ask, on what are you basing that the verse is "just after Saul was chosen by our Lord"? I could be wrong but I THINK you might be making an assumption based on the word(s) "When" and/or "On," taking those to mean an actually time... as opposed to a precursor to events.
In understanding how the SEQUENCING of MANY things written in the NT actually occurs, though, I see nothing that says WHEN this
actually WAS.. nor that it was "just after" Paul was chosen. Rather, I see that, according to Luke's account, Paul was in Damascus for a time... and then the account goes on to relate what occurred WHEN Paul [DID, as in finally] arrived in Jerusalem. Luke's account does not say when that was, but only that it was after Paul's time in Damascus. How LONG after that time, though?
I understand that based on the sequence it might APPEAR that it was right after, but that is an assumption. Because it does NOT state:
"When he arrived in Jerusalem/On arriving in Jerusalem shortly after the Lord chose him..." or
"When he arrived in Jerusalem/On arriving in Jerusalem right after leaving Damascus..."According to Paul,it was some time later... and my understanding is that this is true... and what you have here is a situation much like that with our dear Lord, where we have him at age 12 in the temple... and then all of sudden approaching John at the Jordan. Somehow, about 25 years are missing there.
Even so, you also have to take into consideration that LUKE
was not an EYEWITNESS to many things, but relied on what OTHERS told him. Which MIGHT be why Paul (felt he) had to defend what HE had said, if that were the case. But it isn't and Paul actually clarifies. HE wrote:
"But when God, who separated me from my mother’s womb and called me through his undeserved kindness, thought good to reveal his Son through me so that I might declare the good news about him to the nations, I did not immediately consult with any human; nor did I go up to Jerusalem to those who were apostles before I was, but I went to Arabia, and then I returned to Damascus. Then three years later I went up to Jerusalem to visit Ce′phas, and I stayed with him for 15 days. But I did not see any of the other apostles, only James the brother of the Lord."
You state:
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Paul says he did NOT go up to Jerusalem, but he went up THREE YEARS LATER, and then only visited Cephas and James.
But you're missing something. In Luke's account, he wrote that some in Damascus were seeking to kill Paul... and that Paul had to be secreted out of the city. Let's think about that:
How far is Damascus from Jerusalem? If men in Damascus were seeking to kill Paul... would Jerusalem be far
enough away to run and hide? Would Paul have actually ran straight to the Apostles... having a bounty on his head? Would he have not taken the trouble following him straight to THEM? COULD he have run straight to them... given their perception of him? OR... would he have maybe ran to... say... ARABIA... for a bit... then, once the death threats cooled down... RETURNED to Damascus (because that's where he had been headed to begin with... AND that's where our dear Lord SENT him)... and THEN... three years later... went to Jerusalem?
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Verse 20 says something interesting:
Now regarding the things I am writing you, I assure you before God that I am not lying.
Consider, though, if you can, that Paul wrote THIS...
because he was trying to account for where he HAD been... Arabia... when he had run and hid.. versus where some might have THOUGHT he'd been. Remember, he had been a
Pharisee... and an opposer and persecuter of Christians. And so MANY were afraid of him. And now, first he was in Damascus... then he wasn't... then he was back again. Who WOULDN'T have thought,
"SOOooo, how do we KNOW you're not going to deliver us up NOW? How do we know you've not been hanging out with Herod and company all this time, plotting against us and giving away who and where we are? How do know that the Romans/Jews won't come running in and take us ALL prisoner, because we trusted you... and then you just disappeared? Where you BEEN all this time, Saul?).
Consider that he was defending his ABSENCE... rather than trying to defend against something like whether he'd gone to Jerusalem and when.
Here's another reason why your "theory" is off, dear brother. You state:
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The book of Acts was completed around 61 C.E. (according to WTBTS), but Galatians around 52 C.E. So, why did Paul feel it necessary to say that he wasn't lying? Did he get wind of Luke's writing?
According to this timeline (which my understanding is not accurate, and you certainly CANNOT trust the WTBTS' assertions as to ANY timeline, so...), Paul wrote his letter 9 years before Luke's account was completed. If Paul was defending against Luke's forthcoming writing, surely Luke would have mentioned
something about that... or even changed HIS account to accommodate Paul's. For one, they were companions. So, Luke would have known what Paul wrote to the Galatians. At SOME point. Certainly by the time he finished HIS writing some 9 years later. But more so, Luke based HIS account on what he received FROM eyewitnesses (
Luke 1:2)... versus holy spirit... and so certainly his own companion, Paul, would have been the preferred "eyewitness" to what occurred with him... yes?
So, Luke would have either:
1. Wrote as PAUL told him the events occurred; or
2. Wrote as others told him, but alluded to the discrepancy ("Now, there was some disagreement as to where Paul was between when he left Damascus the first time and when he arrived in Jerusalem. Some were saying he went straight to Jerusalem; Paul, however, argued that he first went to Arabia...").
Because, remember, his GOAL was to right what had occurred... based on what OTHERS told him... in the ORDER that it had occurred...
Acts 1:1; Luke 1:3 (I realize that this is the account of "Acts," versus Luke's gospel account, but he wouldn't have changed his purpose OR goal from one writing to the other without stating so to "Theophilus." That one, however, knew what to expect in the second set of accounts (Acts), due to what he was TOLD he would receive in the FIRST account (Luke).
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Were there other rumors circulating as to what happened to him? Did he feel it necessary to set the record straight?
There were and he did: where he was all that time (between the first time in Damascus and the second)... and what was he doing. But Luke didn't write about this period at all. Why? Because there WERE no eyewitnesses for him to get an account FROM, as there was with the REST of what he wrote about. Because Paul had run away to hide... in Arabia. Who was Luke going to interview there? When would Luke have GONE there? WHY would he have gone there (
"Ummm, hey, folks, I'm Luke. Yeah, I'm from Judea and I'm writing an account about Christians for my employer, Theophilus, and I need to include everything. I was told by Saul of Tarsus that he'd come here when some men in Damascus put out a death threat on him. Is there someone who was an eyewitness to him being here that I can interview? Someone who can tell me all about what happened and what he did while he was here so's I can include it in my account? 'Cause I don't want to leave ANYTHING out!").
The only person who REASONABLY could have told him was Paul. And maybe there was a reason HE (Paul) didn't tell. Or... maybe he did tell... and Luke just thought it was too insignificant... or even too boring... to include. And so... the account skipped all that and went from Damascus to Jerusalem.
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Or, (and I hesitate strongly to say this, but...) was HE lying about what happened?
Again, neither were lying. Unless you want to consider the omission of what happened in Arabia "lying by omission." In which case, both lied, as BOTH left out Paul's time in Arabia. Again, probably because it was boring... or maybe Paul's recounting of it was boring - LOLOL!
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In either case, someone got it wrong and it's been wrong to this very day.
No, actually, no one got it wrong. Then... and it really isn't now. It's just incomplete. Not quite the same thing, dear brother.
I hope this helps, though, truly.
As always, peace to you and to your dear household!
YSSFS of Christ,
Shel, who didn't read between the lines... but just "listened" between them - LOLOLOL!